Read the following statements in relation to reservation of seats in Lok Sabha and Legislative Assembly, and choose the correct option:
Statement I : Out of the 543 elected seats in the Lok Sabha, 84 are reserved for Scheduled Castes and 44 are reserved for Scheduled Tribes.
Statement II : Decision, on which constituency is to be reserved, is taken by the Delimitation Commission.
Statement III : The Delimitation Commission is appointed by the Lok Sabha Speaker.
Correct Answer:
(C) Statement I and III are false, but Statement II is true.
Seats are reserved in the Lok Sabha for the members of the Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes. As per the order issued by the Delimitation Commission in 2008, out of 543 elected seats in the Lok Sabha, 84 seats are reserved for Scheduled Castes and 47 seats are reserved for Scheduled Tribes. Thus, Statement I is false. The Delimitation Commission is constituted by the Central Government under the Law made by the Parliament. The main purpose of the Commission is to rationalize the structure and composition of the electoral constituencies on the principle of "One Vote and One Value." Decision on which constituency is to be reserved, is taken by Delimitation Commission. Thus, Statement II is true while statement III is false.
Ques: 2
In which Article of the Constitution of India was the provision for reservation of scheduled castes in the Lok Sabha made?
Correct Answer:
(A) Article 330
Article 330 - Reservation of seats for Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes in the House of the People (Lok Sabha).
Article 331 - Representation of Anglo - Indian communities in Lok Sabha. (See the explanation of above question).
Article 332 - Reservation of seats for Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes in the Legislative Assembly of the states.
Article 333 - Representation of Anglo - Indian communities in the Legislative Assembly of the States.
Ques: 3
Which of the following Constitutional Amendments is related to raising the number of Members of Lok Sabha to be elected from the States?
Correct Answer:
(C) 7th and 31st
7th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1956 determined the number of members in Lok Sabha as 520. 31st constitutional Amendment Act, 1973 increased the size of Lok Sabha from 525 to 545 seats. At Present, the Size of Lok Sabha is 550 (530 members From the states + 20 members from the Union Territories). It is noteworthy that the arrangements of nominating 2 representatives of the Anglo-Indian Community in the Lok Sabha have not been extended beyond the stipulated date (25 January, 2020) by 'The Constitution (One Hundred and Fourth Amendment) Act, 2019.
Ques: 4
Before completing its term, the Lok Sabha can be dissolved-
Correct Answer:
(D) By the President on the recommendation of Prime Minister
According to Article 85(2)(b), the Lok Sabha may be dissolved before completion of its tenure/period. The President exercises this power on the recommendation of the Prime Minister or Council of Ministers.
Ques: 5
Session of Lok Sabha is called for at least-
Correct Answer:
(B) Two times in a year
According to Article 85(1), the President shall from time to time summon each House of the Parliament to meet at such time and place as he thinks first, but six months shall not pass between its last sitting in one session and the date appointed for its first sitting in the next session. This indicates that the session of Lok Sabha is called for at least two times in a year.
Ques: 6
Consider the following statements :
The President of India can summon a session of the Parliament at such place as he / she thinks fit.
The Constitution of India provides for three sessions of the Parliament in a year, but it is not mandatory to conduct all three sessions.
There is no minimum number of days that the parliament is required to meet in a year.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct Answer:
(C) 1 and 3 only
Article 85(1) of the Indian Constitution empowers the President to summon each House of Parliament to meet at such time and place as he thinks fit, but six months shall not intervene between its last sitting in one session and the date appointed for its first sitting in the next session. So, the constitution provides for the maximum gap between two sessions of Parliament but there is no minimum gap. Hence, statement 1 and 3 are correct, while statement 2 is wrong. So, the correct answer is an option (c).
Ques: 7
What is the quorum of Lok Sabha in relation to its strength?
Correct Answer:
(D) 1/10
Quorum is the minimum number of members required to be present in the House before it can transact any business as provided by Article 100(3). The quorum to constitute a meeting of either House of Parliament is 1/10th of the total number of members of the House.
Ques: 8
The maximum number of members in Lok Sabha can be -
Correct Answer:
(C) 550
According to Article 81 of the Indian Constitution, the maximum number of members in Lok Sabha can be 550 (530 from states and 20 from Union territories). According to Article 331, notwithstanding anything in Article 81, the President, if he is of the opinion that the Anglo-Indian community is not adequately represented in the Lok Sabha, could nominate not more than two members of that community to the Lok Sabha. There are currently 543 members in Lok Sabha. (524 members from the states + 19 members from the Union Territories). It is noteworthy that the arrangements of nominating 2 representatives of the Anglo-Indian community in the Lok Sabha have not been extended beyond the stipulated date (25 January, 2020) by 'The Constitution (One Hundred and Fourth Amendment) Act, 2019.
Ques: 9
The sitting of House of the People may the terminated by:
Correct Answer:
(D) All of the above
The sitting of House of the People may be terminated by way of Adjournment, Prorogation, and Dissolution. Adjournment is done by the speaker of Lok Sabha while Prorogation and Dissolution is done by President under Article 85(2).
Ques: 10
The term of the Lok Sabha:
Correct Answer:
(C) Can be extended by one year at a time during the proclamation of emergency
According to Article 83(2) of the Constitution, the House of the People, unless sooner dissolved, shall continue for five years from the date appointed for its first meeting and no longer after expiration of the said period of five years. Provided that the said period may, while a Proclamation of Emergency is in operation, be extended by Parliament by law for a period not exceeding one year at a time and not extending in any case beyond a period of six months after the Proclamation has ceased to operate.
Ques: 11
The tenure of which Lok Sabha was about 6 years?
Correct Answer:
(A) 5th Lok Sabha
The tenure of the 5th Lok Sabha was about 6 years which functioned from 15 March, 1971 to 18 January, 1977.
Parliament
Ques: 12
Read the following statements related to Cabinet Committees and choose the correct option:
Statement I : Cabinet Committees are not mentioned in the constitution.
Statement II : Cabinet Committees are set up by the Prime Minister according to the exigencies of the time and requirements of the situation.
Statement III : If Prime Minister is the member of Committee, he may not necessarily be the Chairman of Committee.
Statement IV : Parliamentary Affairs Committee is chaired by the Prime Minister.
Codes:
Correct Answer:
(D) Statements I and II are true, but Statement III and IV are false.
Cabinet Committees are not mentioned in the Constitution. So, they are extra - constitutional bodies. Rules of Business provides for their establishment. Thus, Statement I is true. Cabinet Committees are set up by the Prime minister according to the exigencies of the time and requirements of the situation. Thus, Statement II is true. Cabinet Committees are mostly Chaired by the Prime Minister. Sometimes other Cabinet Ministers, the Finance Minister or the Home Minister also acts as chairman but in case if Prime Minister is the member of Committee, he is necessarily the Chairman of the Committee. Thus, Statement III is false Cabinet Committee on Parliamentary Affairs is chaired by Minister of Defence, not by Prime Minister. Thus, Statement IV is false.
Ques: 13
Which of the following are Financial Committees of Indian Parliament
Estimates Committee
Public Accounts Committee
Committee on Public Undertakings
Joint Committee on Salaries and Allowance for Members of Parliament
Select the correct answer using code given below:
Codes:
(A),
(C) and
(D)
(A),
(B) and
(D)
(A),
(B) and
Correct Answer:
(C) and
Financial Committee is one of the six classifications of standing Committee. Financial Committee is of 3 types -
(a) Public Account Committee
(b) Estimate Committee
(c) Committee on Public Undertakings
Joint Committee on salaries and Allowances of Members is one of the Committees of House Keeping Committee.
Ques: 14
Which among the following committees of Lok Sabha is assisted by Comptroller & Auditor General of India?
Correct Answer:
(A) The Public Accounts Committee
The Public Accounts Committee scrutinizes the appropriation and finance accounts of the Government of India and reports of the Comptroller and Auditor General of India, Public Accounts Committee consists of 22 members(15 from Lok Sabha and 7 from Rajya Sabha).
Ques: 15
With reference to the Parliament of India, which of the following Parliamentary Committees scrutinizes and reports to the House whether the powers to make regulations rules, sub-rules, by-laws, etc. conferred by the Constitution or delegated by the Parliament are being properly exercised by the Executive within the scope of such delegation?
Correct Answer:
(B) Committee on Subordinate Legislation
Parliament is too unwieldy a body to deliberate effectively the issues that come up before it and the functions of Parliament are varied, complex & voluminous. Therefore, it is assisted by a number of committees in the discharge of its duties.
Committee on Government Assurance - it examines the assurance, promises and undertaking given by ministers from time to time on the floor of the House and reports on the extent to which they have been implemented.
Committee on subordinate Legislation - it examines and reports to the House whether the powers to make regulations, rules, sub-rules and bye-laws delegated by the Parliament or conferred by the constitution to the executive are being properly exercised by it.
Rules Committee- it considers the matters of procedure and conduct of business in the House and recommends necessary amendments or additions to the Rules of the House.
Business advisory committee- it regulates the programme and time table of the House.
Ques: 16
Which of the following is not a tool of Parliamentary control over Public expenditures?
Correct Answer:
(B) Comptroller and Auditor General of India
Article 148 of the Constitution of India provides for the Comptroller and Auditor General of India. He has powers in relation to and of any other authority prescribed under any law made by Parliament. So, CAG is not a tool of Parliamentary control over Public expenditure whereas rest options are under parliamentary control.
Ques: 17
In the Parliament of India, the purpose of an adjournment motion is –
Correct Answer:
(A) To allow a discussion on a definite matter of urgent public importance
The main purpose of an adjournment motion in the Parliament of India is to allow a discussion on a matter of urgent public importance.
Ques: 18
What is the objective of "Cut Motion"?
Correct Answer:
(C) To move a proposal to reduce expenditure in the Budget proposals
The motion to reduce the amount of demands for grants are called "Cut Motion". The object of a cut motion is to draw the attention of the House to the matter specified therein.
Ques: 19
In what way does the Indian Parliament exercise control over the administration ?
Correct Answer:
(A) Through Parliamentary Committees
The Parliament exercises control over the administration through Parliamentary committees. These committees are Public Accounts Committee, Estimates Committee, Standing Committee, etc.
Ques: 20
The Officers of the Parliament include
Speaker, Lok Sabha
Dy. Speaker, Lok Sabha
Secretary General of Lok Sabha
Chairman of Rajya Sabha
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
Codes :
Correct Answer:
(D) All the four
Each House of the Parliament has its officers. Lok Sabha consists of Speaker and Deputy Speaker, and Rajya Sabha consists of Chairman and Deputy Chairman. Also, a panel of chairman in Lok Sabha and a panel of Deputy Chairman of Rajya Sabha is appointed. Secretary-General is the head of the Secretariat of both the Houses. He is a permanent officer appointed by the Speaker of the House.
Ques: 21
All offences punishable under the Protection of Civil Rights Act, 1955 are :
Correct Answer:
(B) Cognizable and Summarily Triable
According to Section 15 of Protection of Civil Rights Act, 1955 all the offences punishable under the act are cognizable and summarily Triable.
Ques: 22
Consider the following statements :
The Parliament (Prevention of Disqualification) Act, 1959 exempts several posts from disqualification on the grounds of 'Office of Profit'.
The above-mentioned Act was amended five times.
The term 'office of Profit' is well-defined in the Constitution of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct Answer:
(A) 1 and 2 only
The expression 'office of profit' has not been defined in the Constitution of India or in the Representation of The People Act, 1951. Article 102 of the Constitution provides that a person shall be disqualified from being chosen as a Member of Parliament (MP), if he holds an office of profit under Government of India or State. However, the Parliament can declare by law that holding certain offices will not lead to disqualification. The Parliament (Prevention of Disqualification) Act, 1959 lists certain offices of profit under central and state governments. The Parliament (Prevention of Disqualification) Act, 1959 was amended five times. So only statement (1) and (2) are correct. Right answer is option (a).
Parliament
Ques: 23
Which one of the following statements is correct?
Correct Answer:
(D) A Money Bill is introduced in the Lok Sabha.
A Money Bill can be introduced only in the Lok Sabha. If any question arises whether a Bill is a Money Bill or not, the decision of the Speaker thereon is final. The Speaker is under no obligation to consult anyone. A Money Bill cannot be referred to a joint session of the Parliament. Rajya Sabha is required to return Money Bill within a period of 14 days from the date of its receipt. Thus, Rajya Sabha may withhold the bill maximum for 14 days [Art. 109(2)].
Ques: 24
What is the importance of whips in our political system?
1. Whips summon Parliamentary sittings once they have been adjourned by the Speaker.
2. Whips are ‘Floor managers’ of the parties within the legislatures.
3. Private member bills can be introduced only through Whips.
Select the Solution using the codes below:
Correct Answer:
(C) 2 only
In a parliamentary system of government, party Whips play a crucial role in maintaining the internal structure and coordination of political parties within the legislatures.
A Whip is a key figure within a party’s parliamentary team, mainly responsible for managing proceedings on the floor of both Houses of Parliament and upholding party discipline.
Their primary duty is to ensure that party members vote according to the party’s official stance on significant matters and attend important voting sessions.
The proper and effective functioning of Parliament and State Legislatures largely depends on the role of the Whip.
Whips can essentially be seen as the party managers within legislative bodies.
One of the responsibilities assigned to the Ministry of Parliamentary Affairs, as per the Government of India (Allocation of Business) Rules, 1961—formulated under Article 77(3) of the Constitution—is to organize the All India Whips Conference.
Ques: 25
Which one of the following expenditures is not charged on the Consolidated Fund of India?
Correct Answer:
(C) Salary and allowances of the Prime Minister of India.
Only discussion on expenditure charged on the Consolidated Fund can happen, not voting. According to Article 112 (3) of the Indian Constitution, the salary and allowances of the President, salary and allowances of the Chief Justice of India, Pensions payable to Judges of High Courts, salary and allowances of the Comptroller and Auditor General of India, salary and allowances of the Chairman and Deputy Chairman of the Council of States and Speaker and Deputy Speaker of Lok Sabha, are the expenditures charged on the Consolidated Fund of India.
Ques: 26
With reference to the Union Government, consider the following statements:
1. The Department of Revenue is responsible for the preparation of Union Budget that is presented to the Parliament.
2. No amount can be withdrawn from the Consolidated Fund of India without the authorization from the Parliament of India.
3. All the disbursements made from Public Account also need the authorization from the Parliament of India.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
Correct Answer:
(C) 2 only
The Ministry of Finance is responsible for the preparation of Union Budget which is presented to the Parliament. Therefore statement 1 is incorrect. No amount can be withdrawn from the Consolidated Fund of India without the authorization of the Parliament of India as provided in Article114(3) of the Constitution. Thus, statement 2 is correct. The disbursement made from public account does not require authorization of Parliament of India. The control of this account is in the hands of the Executive. Thus statement 3 is also incorrect.
Ques: 27
Regarding Money Bill, which of the following statements is not correct?
Correct Answer:
(C) A Money Bill is concerned with the appropriation of moneys out of the Contingency Fund of India.
The Contingency Fund of India Act, 1950 was enacted by the Parliament. This fund is placed at the disposal of the President and he can make advances out of it to meet unforeseen expenditure. The fund is held by the finance secretary on behalf of the President. Thus, it is operated by the executive action and not by Legislative Procedure into which money bills (Art. 110) are placed.
Ques: 28
A Bill which merely involves expenditure and does not include any of the matters specified in Article 110 can be:
Correct Answer:
(B) Initiated in either House of Parliament
Financial Bills can be divided into two categories. In the first category, the Bills which contain provision of Article 110(1) (a) to (f) of the Constitution are categorized as financial Bill under Article 117(1) of the Constitution. In the second category, those Bills which contain provision of expenditure from the consolidated fund of India are categorized as financial Bill under Article 117(3) of the constitution. These can be introduced in either House of Parliament. However, recommendation of President is essential for consideration of these Bill unless such consideration, neither house can pass the Bill.
Parliament
Ques: 29
With reference to consumers rights/privileges under the provisions of law in India, which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?
Consumers are empowered to take samples for food testing.
When a consumer files a complaint in any Consumer Forum, no fee is required to be paid.
In the case of death of a consumer, his/her legal their can file a complaint in the Consumer Forum on his/her behalf.
Select the correct answer using the code given below
Correct Answer:
(C) Only 1 and 3
In 1986, the Government of India passed Consumer Protection Act, 1986 for the protection of consumer rights. Under this Act, the consumers are empowered to take samples for food testing. A consumer can fi le his complaint in Consumer Forum on any malfunction or failure of the product. He has to pay a small fee for that. In the case of death of a consumer, his/her legal heir can file a complaint in the Consumer Forum on his/her behalf. The Consumer Protection Act, 2019, which received the President's assent on 9 August, 2019 has replaced the consumer Protection Act, 1986.
Ques: 30
With reference to the 'Prohibition of Benami Property Transactions Act, 1988 (PBPT Act)', consider the following statements:
A property transaction is not treated as a benami transaction if the owner of the property is not aware of the transaction.
Properties held benami are liable for confiscation by the Government.
The Act provides for three authorities for investigations but does not provide for any appellate mechanism.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct Answer:
(B) 2 only
The Benami Transaction Act,1988 was amended through the Benami Transactions (Prohibition) Amendment Act, 2016. There is a legal principle 'Ignorantia juris non excusat' which means "Ignorance of law excuses no one." This principle holds that a person who is unaware of a law may not escape liability for violating it merely because he was not aware of its content. Therefore, statement 1, is incorrect. Statement 2 is correct as Properties held Benami are liable for confiscation by the Government. Statement 3 is also incorrect as the Benami Transaction (Prohibition) Amendment Act, 2016 provides for appellate mechanism.
Ques: 31
When was the Criminal Tribes Act enacted for the first time?
Correct Answer:
(C) 1871
In 1871, the British Government passed an Act, commonly known as Criminal Tribes Act. It was enacted for the first time in India and was enforced in the Northern part of India which was later extended to the region of Bengal.
Ques: 32
Under which one of the following Sections of the Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes (Prevention of Atrocities) Act, 1989 is 'anticipatory bail' prohibited?
Correct Answer:
(C) Section 18
Section 18 of SC/ST Act, 1989 says, "Section 438 of the Indian penal code not to apply to persons committing an offence under the Act."
Note: On 11 September, 1989 the President gave his assent to Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes (Prevention of Atrocities) Act, 1989. This Act came into force on 30 January, 1990.
Ques: 33
Who has/had the power to make rules for carrying out the purposes of the Scheduled Castes and the Scheduled Tribes (Prevention of Atrocities) Act, 1989?
The State Government
Correct Answer:
(B) and
According to Section 23(1) of Scheduled Caste and Scheduled Tribe (Prevention of Atrocities) Act, 1989, the Central Government may, by notification in official Gazette make rules for carrying out the purpose of this Act.
Ques: 34
Offence committed by any public servant under Section 3 of the SC and ST (Prevention of Atrocities) Act, 1989, provides for minimum punishment of
Correct Answer:
(C) One year
Whoever being a public servant, commits any offence under section 3, of the SCs and STs (Prevention of Atrocities) Act, 1989 shall be punishable with imprisonment for a term which shall not be less than one year.
Ques: 35
The State Government can specify a Court of Session to be a Special Court to try the offences under the Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes (Prevention of Atrocities) Act, 1989 with the concurrence of the–
Correct Answer:
(B) Chief Justice of High Court
Section 14 of Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes (Prevention of Atrocities) Act, 1989 made provisions for the purpose of providing a speedy trial. The State Government shall, with the concurrence of the Chief Justice of the High Court, by notification in the Official Gazette, specify for each district a Court of Session to be a Special Court to try the offences under this Act.
Ques: 36
An appeal under Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes (Prevention of Atrocities) Act, 1989 shall lie from any judgement, sentence or order to the High Court.
Correct Answer:
(C) Both on facts and law
An appeal under Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes (Prevention of Atrocities) Act, 1989 shall lie from any judgement, sentence or order to the High Court both on facts and laws.
Ques: 37
The Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes (Prevention of Atrocities) Act is a special provision for the advancement of Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes which is based on which one of the following doctrines?
Correct Answer:
(C) Doctrine of Protective discrimination
Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes (Prevention of Atrocities) Act, 1989 is based on Doctrine of Protective Discrimination’. This Act is based on the implementation of the system under Article 15(4) of the Indian Constitution. This Article prohibits the discrimination of people on the grounds of religion, race, caste, sex or place of birth.
Ques: 38
Who is empowered for imposition and realization of a collective fine under SC and ST (Prevention of Atrocities) Act, 1989?
Correct Answer:
(B) State Government
The power of imposition and realization of collective fine and for all other matters connected in addition to that under Sec. 16 of SC’s and ST’s Act, 1989 is vested in State Government.
Ques: 39
In a prosecution for an offence under the Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes (Prevention of Atrocities) Act, 1989, the court can presume which of the following?
Correct Answer:
(D) All of the above
The court may presume abetment, common intention and common object in a prosecution for an offence under Section 8 of Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes (Prevention of Atrocities) Act, 1989.
Parliament
Ques: 40
The members of Council of States are elected by -
Correct Answer:
(A) Members of Legislative Assembly of States.
According to Article 80(4) of the Constitution, the representatives of each State in the Council of States shall be elected by the elected members of the Legislative Assembly of the State in accordance with the proportional representation by means of the Single Transferable Vote.
Ques: 41
What is the tenure of a member of Council of State?
Correct Answer:
(C) 6 years
According to Section 83(1), the Council of States is the Upper House or Permanent House of the Parliament. It is not subject to dissolution but, as nearly as possible one-third of the members thereof shall retire as soon as may be on the expiration of every second year. The tenure of the members of the Council of States is 6 years.
Ques: 42
Which one of the following statements about Rajya Sabha is correct?
Correct Answer:
(A) It is not subject to dissolution.
Only the first statement is correct. Its members are elected by the elected members of the Legislative Assemblies [Art. 80 (4)]. The tenure of Member of Council of States is 6 years, and 1/3rd members retire after every 2 years. The council of States shall not be subject to dissolution. The Vice-President of India is ex-officio chairman of the Council of States, and Attorney General of India has the right to speak in both the Houses of the Parliament.
Ques: 43
The number of members nominated by the President in Rajya Sabha is–
Correct Answer:
(C) 12
According to Article 80, the President may nominate 12 persons in Rajya Sabha belonging to the area of Literature, Science, Art and Social Services.
Ques: 44
Which of the following statements is correct regarding the Rajya Sabha?
Correct Answer:
(A) One-third of its members retire every two years.
Rajya Sabha is a Permanent House and is not subject to dissolution as per Article 83(1) of the Constitution of India. But as nearly as possible, one-third of its members retire every two years.
Ques: 45
Consider the following statements :
1. The Rajya Sabha has no power either to reject or to amend a Money Bill.
2. The Rajya Sabha cannot vote on the Demands for Grants.
3. The Rajya Sabha cannot discuss the Annual Financial Statements.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct Answer:
(B) 1 and 2 only
According to Article 109 of the Indian Constitution, a Money Bill shall not be introduced in the Council of States. After Money Bill has been passed by the House of People it shall be transmitted to the Council of States for its recommendation and Council of States shall within a period of 14 days from the date of its receipt of the Bill return the Bill to the House of People with its recommendation and House of People may thereupon either accept or reject all or any of the recommendation of the Council of States. So Rajya Sabha has no power either to reject or amend the Bill. According to Article 113(2) of the Indian Constitution estimates are submitted in the form of Demands for grants to the House of People and only House of People has power to assent or refuse to assent. Rajya Sabha cannot vote on the Demand for Grants. So the statement 1 and 2 are correct, and statement 3 is wrong. The Rajya Sabha can discuss the Annual Financial Statement but no power to vote.
Ques: 46
Which of the following special powers has been conferred on the Rajya Sabha by the Constitution of India?
Correct Answer:
(B) To pass a resolution empowering the Parliament to make laws in the State List and to create one or more All India Services.
The Council of States has been conferred with special power under Article 249 of the Indian Constitution to declare by resolution supported by not less than 2/3rd members present and voting that it is necessary or expedient in the national interest that Parliament should make law on a subject enumerated in the State list. Like this Article 312 of the Indian Constitution provides that the Council of States can declare by resolution supported by not less than 2/3rd of member present and voting that it is necessary and expedient in the national interest to create one or more All India Services, including all- India Judicial Services.
Ques: 47
Rajya Sabha has equal powers with Lok Sabha in:
Correct Answer:
(B) amending the Constitution
Rajya Sabha has equal powers with Lok Sabha in the amendment of the Constitution. According to the Article 368 (2) of the Constitution, an amendment of this Constitution may be initiated only by the introduction of a Bill for the purpose in either house of Parliament, and when the Bill is passed in each house by a majority of the total membership of that house and by a majority of not less than two-thirds of the members of that house present and voting (it shall be presented to the President who shall give his assent to the bill and thereupon) the Constitution shall stand amended in accordance with the terms of the Bill.
Ques: 48
A resolution passed by the Rajya Sabha under Article 249 of the constitution empowering Parliament to legislate on a state subject in national interest remains in force for a period.
Correct Answer:
(C) Not exceeding one year
A resolution passed by the Rajya Sabha under Article 249 of the Constitution empowering Parliament to legislate on a state subject in national interest remains in force for a period not exceeding one year. [Article 249 (2)].
Ques: 49
What is the consequence of the failure of Government in Rajya Sabha?
Correct Answer:
(D) None of the above
Whenever the Government or the Council of Ministers fail in Rajya Sabha, none of the given consequence occurs because, according to Article 75(3); the Council of Ministers is collectively responsible to the Lok Sabha (House of the People).
Ques: 50
Which one of the following statements correctly describes the Fourth Schedule of the Constitution of India?
Correct Answer:
(D) It allocates seats in the Council of States.
The Fourth Schedule allocates seats for each State of India in the Council of States. The 7th Schedule deals with allocation of powers and functions between the Union and the State. Under 8th Schedule, a list of 22 languages of India is recognized by the Constitution. The 5th and 6th Schedule give provisions for administration and control of Scheduled Areas and Tribes.